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- 1. Open Ended(9385)- What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot - A- may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude. B- must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes. C- may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.
- 2. Open Ended(8736)- (Refer to Figure 1.) What does the 20:1 ratio represent? - A- Displaced threshold. B- Final approach fix. C- Obstacle clearance surface (OCS).
- 3. Open Ended(8279)- Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport? - A- If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. B- When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. C- When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.
- 4. Open Ended(9090.1)- If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take? - A- Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. B- Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, perform missed approach. C- Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.
- 5. Open Ended(9391)- What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported? - A- 1/4 SM. B- 3/4 SM. C- 1/2 SM.
- 6. Open Ended(9744.1)- GBAS approaches are - A- flown using the same techniques as an ILS once selected and identified. B- flown the same as an LDA with glide slope tuning and identification. C- automatically tuned and displayed after selection of the three character procedure identifier.
- 7. Open Ended(9091)- What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach? - A- A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization. B- A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot. C- Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.
- 8. Open Ended(9368)- When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach? - A- At the DA/DH when the runway is not clearly visible. B- When the time has expired after reaching the DA/DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. C- At the DA/DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.
- 9. Open Ended(9037)- While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes? - A- Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. B- When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. C- Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
- 10. Open Ended(8726)- (Refer to Figure 310.) What is the required minimum reported weather to initiate the ILS Rwy 9L approach at PHL in your CAT C turbine- powered airplane with no MEL items? - A- Ceiling at least 200 feet and RVR 2400. B- Ceiling 300 feet minimum. C- Visibility 1800 RVR.
- 11. Open Ended(9021)- When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn the maximum speed that should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn is - A- 180 knots IAS. B- 200 knots TAS. C- 200 knots IAS.
- 12. Open Ended(9036)- What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach? - A- Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. B- Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. C- Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.
- 13. Open Ended(9382)- Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon - A- arrival at the DH on the glide slope. B- arrival at the visual descent point. C- expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.
- 14. Open Ended(8955)- When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately? - A- Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. B- If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. C- If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.
- 15. Open Ended(9773)- Pilots are responsible for knowing - A- if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc at a designated airspeed. B- if the RNP missed approach is normal or reduced. C- if the RNP registration is complete.
- 16. Open Ended(9738)- To conduct an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV minimums, the aircraft must be furnished with - A- a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM. B- a GPS (TSO-129) receiver certified for IFR operations. C- an IFR approach-certified system with required navigation performance (RNP) of 0.5.
- 17. Open Ended(9090.2)- Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is - A- an airborne RADAR system for monitoring approaches to two runways. B- a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways. C- a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single runway.
- 18. Open Ended(9744)- Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the procedure name from - A- the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint in the correct sequence. B- the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint and verified by the pilot(s). C- the aircraft navigation database.
- 19. Open Ended(8953)- When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories? - A- On tower frequency. B- On approach control frequency. C- One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.
- 20. Open Ended(9369)- If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies 'NO PT,' the pilot should - A- advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. B- not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. C- execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.
- 21. Open Ended(9817.1)- You are in IMC and descending below 1,000 feet above the TDZE on a straight-in instrument approach in a turbojet. The approach is considered stabilized when the airplane is - A- fully configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of less than 1,000 FPM. B- fully configured with the engines spooled up and a descent rate of no more than 500 FPM. C- at least partially configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of no more than 1,200 FPM.
- 22. Open Ended(9817)- When executing a stabilized approach, you should use - A- no more than 1000 FPM rate of descent for a non-precision or precision approach from 1,000 feet above the airport or TDZE. B- no more than 1000 FPM for a precision approach or 1200 FPM for a non- precision approach. C- no more than 800 FPM for a nonprecision approach or 1000 FPM for a precision approach.
- 23. Open Ended(9384)- Under which condition, MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach reference for the intended runway? minus 10 minutes. minus 5 minutes. minus 5 minutes. if any, may a pilot descend below DH or light system as the primary visual - A- Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. B- Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. C- The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.
- 24. Open Ended(9760)- Precision runway monitoring requires - A- pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous radios. B- pilot responsibility to monitor 2 ILS receivers. C- detailed performance during the "decision region": 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glideslope.
- 25. Open Ended(9438)- When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver? - A- At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach. B- As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. C- At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.
- 26. Open Ended(9041)- When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach? - A- Anytime at the pilot's discretion. B- Only at the MAP. C- Only when advised by the controller.
- 27. Open Ended(9392)- The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value? - A- 3/8 SM. B- 5/8 SM. C- 3/4 SM.
- 28. Open Ended(9393)- The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value? - A- 5/8 SM. B- 3/4 SM. C- 7/8 SM.
- 29. Open Ended(9383)- What action should be taken when a pilot is 'cleared for approach' while being radar vectored on an unpublished route? - A- Descend to minimum vector altitude. B- Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. C- Descend to initial approach fix altitude.
- 30. Open Ended(8954)- When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver? - A- At the published DH. B- At the MDA published or a circling approach. C- As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
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