In anemia what enzyme causes a rightward shift of the oxygen hb dissociation curve?
150. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
A reticulocyte count of ____ indicates excessive RBC destruction or blood loss
151. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Why should you NOT infuse PRBCs with LR?
152. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
When will giving Vitamin K not work in correcting a high PT/PTT?
153. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Cryoprecipitate contains what 2 components?
154. Fill in the Blank
30 seconds
1 pt
1 unit of platelets raises platelet count by ________
155. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
When does an "Extravascular hemolysis" occur?
156. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the management for Extravascular hemolysis?
157. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Microcytic anemia with normal Fe and normal or decreased TIBC =?
158. Fill in the Blank
30 seconds
1 pt
In elderly patients with iron deficiency anemia, you MUST rule out __________
159. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cause of GI bleeding in the elderly?
160. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Thallasemia is named according to the chain that is (present/absent)
161. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
in B-Thal anemia, a skull Xray may show what appearance?
162. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Hb Electrophoresis shows elevations in what 2 hemoglobins in B-Thal?
163. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
When is Thal-Major usually diagnosed?
164. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Deletion of all 4 loci in Alpha-Thal results in what?
165. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
3 drug causes of Sideroblastic Anemia
166. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Treatment for Sideroblastic Anemia
167. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are the 2 most common clinical findings in a patient with AKI?
168. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cause of death in AKI?
169. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cause of AKI?
170. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Hyaline casts are seen in
(Pre, intrinsic, Post renal)
171. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which kind of AKI is consistent with a BUN: Creatinine of 10:1
(Pre, intrinsic, Post renal)
172. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cause of acute interstitial nephritis?
173. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are the classic findings of Acute interstitial nephritis (3)?
174. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Differentiate acute vs chronic interstitial nephritis
175. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How can you differentiate ATN vs AIN?
176. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How is the diagnosis of renal papillary necrosis made?
177. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How do you treat Type 1 (distal) RTA?
178. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What type of RTA is the result of the inability to resorb HCO3-?
179. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What pathology must ALWAYS be ruled out when a patient presents with Type 2 (proximal) RTA?
180. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Nephrocalcinosis and nephrolithiasis occur in which form of RTA?
181. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How do you treat RTA Type 2 (proximal)
182. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which form of RTA causes HYPER-K vs hypo K in the others?
183. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the underlying etiology of RTA type 4?
184. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Genetic induced syndrome causing decreased intestinal and renal absorption of neutral amino acids -- results in clinical features similar to pellagra
185. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Syndrome of defective transport of glucose, AA's, Na, K, PO4, Uric acid, and Bicarb
186. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What heart valve abnormality is associated with ADPKD?
187. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Hypoplasia of lungs, limb abnormalities (club feet), and abnormal facies = ?
188. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Medullary Sponge Kidney is associated with what 2 pathologies?
189. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How is medullary sponge kidney diagnosed?
190. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cause of secondary htn?
191. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of renal artery stenosis?
192. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What diagnostic test is used for identify RAS when patient has renal failure?
193. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What medication is recommended for sickle cell nephropathy?
194. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Most common site of nephrolithiasis?
195. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common and preventable risk factor for Nephrolithiasis?
196. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which gender is 3 times as likely to develop nephrolithiasis?
197. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Causes of hyperoxaluria (and therefore calcium oxalate stones (3 )
198. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
urease producing organisms that lead to struvite stones (4)
199. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
If a stone is > __ cm it is UNlikely to pass spontaneously
200. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
If a stone is <____ cm it is LIKELY to pass spontaneously
201. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are the two radiolucent stones?
202. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy can be used if lithotripsy fails. It is best used for stones of what size?
203. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Patients with what kind of stones should refrain from eating animal protein?
204. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the initial test for diagnosing a urinary tract obstruction?
205. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the gold standard test for diagnosis of Urinary Tract obstruction?
206. Fill in the Blank
30 seconds
1 pt
95% of Prostate Cancer is _____ (kind of cell)
207. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
IF PSA level is >____ TRUS + Biopsy is indicated regardless of DRE findings
208. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
IF PSA is between 4.1 and 10 and DRE = negative... what do you do?
209. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
3 most common bones for Prostate CA metastasis
210. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
If PSA is >10, what are the chances of finding Prostate CA on biopsy?
211. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How do oyu treat Prostate CA with local invasion?
212. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How can you decrease testosterone production in patients with metastatic prostate cancer?
213. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common primary renal cancer?
214. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome?
215. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Areas of metastasis for RCC (4)
216. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Stage Prostate Cancer (A-D)
217. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
90% of bladder cancers are what kind of cancer?
218. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Classic triad of RCC
219. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Testicular cancer is most common between men of what ages?
220. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common type of tumor for testicular cancer?
221. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cell type of Germ Cell Testicular tumors?
222. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What non-germ cell testicular tumor is hormonally active?
223. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T/F
Testicular cancers often are diagnosed early in the course of disease
224. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Gynecomastia may present in what kind of testicular cancer?
225. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Name 2 Testicular cancer tumor markers?
226. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
At what time frame may torsion lead to infarction and an unsalvageable testicle?
227. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
upper vs lower GI bleeding is differentiated by what anatomical landmark?
228. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Lower GI bleed in patient over 40....
229. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Name 4 things that can mimic melena
230. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is an important cause of Achalasia worldwide?
231. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T or F
There is no cure for achalasia
232. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is Light's Criteria, and what is it used for?
233. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Bromocriptine is an ergot derivative which causes what severe AE?
234. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cause of hemoptysis?
235. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Centrally located lesion with cavitation on CXR is likely what kind of Lung CA?
236. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What kind of lung cancer is usually on the periphery, and is commonly associated with effusion, scaring, and fibrosis?
237. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
chronic bronchitis requires what tme frame?
238. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
what negative hormones are stimulated by smoking
239. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common kind of emphysema?
240. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What qualifies someone for continuous or intermittent long term oxygen therapy in COPD? (3)
241. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Continuous oxygen therapy for >18 hours per day has been shown to reduce mortality in patients with COPD by what mechanism?
242. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
3 most common causes of COPD exacerbations
243. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Asthma triad = ?
244. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T or F
Asthma must begin before the age of 50, otherwise, it is likely COPD
245. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What 2 medications commonly cause asthma flares
246. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What Fev1/FVC ratio is diagnostic of Asthma?
247. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Increased PaCO2 during an asthma exacerbation indicates what?
248. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the quickest way to diagnose asthma?
249. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What peak flow (of predicted) is cnonsidered a SEVERE asthma exacerbation?
250. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What medication is used in asthma for prophylaxis of mild-exercise induced asthma and control of mild to mod persistent disease?
251. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What medication for asthma is only used for pre-exercise prophylaxis? (and rarely in adults)
252. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What kind of lung cancer has the LOWEST association with smoking?
253. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the leading cause of blindness in the US?
254. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is treatment of choice for NSCLC?
255. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is treatment of choice for SCLC?
256. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Exudative effusions that are primarily lymphocytic are ____
257. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Ph of pleural effusions <7.2 = (1 of what 2 things_
258. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How much pleural fluid must accumulate before an effusion can be detected/
259. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Difference between parapneumonic effusion and empyema?
260. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What medications are known to be toxic to lungs (7)
261. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Noncaseating granulomas = ?
262. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What age are people with sarcoid diagnosed?
263. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What skin disorder is associated with sarcoidosis?
264. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cause of death in sarcoidosis patients?
265. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the hallmark CXR finding for Sarcoidosis>
266. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Sarcoidosis (and some other lung diseases) cause an elevation of this serum enzyme...
267. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which stage of sarcoidosis has the highest rate of remission?
268. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What stage of Sarcoidosis: Diffuse parenchymal infiltrates withOUT hilar adenopathy
269. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What stage of Sarcoidosis has the least favorable prognosis?
270. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Stage IV Sarcoidosis = ?
271. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are the treatment of choice for Sarcoidosis?
272. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Letterer-siwe disease and
273. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Hand-Schuller-Christian syndrome are both forms of what?
274. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What lung disease is characterized by necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis?
275. Fill in the Blank
30 seconds
1 pt
the gold standard for Wegener's granulomatosis is tissue biopsy, but if the patient tests positive for _____ the likelihood is high
276. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is a granulomatous vasculitis in patients with asthma?
277. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What antibody is associated with churg strauss syndrome?
278. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
"egg shell" calcifications on CXR = ?
279. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
"Pleural plaques" on CXR = ?
280. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Asbestosis increases risk of what 2 significant pathologies?
281. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Silicosis more commonly involves (upper or lower) lobes
282. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What lung disease develops secondary to mining, stone cutting, and glass manufacturing?
283. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the diagnostic method for berylliosis?
284. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the hallmark finding of hypersensitivity pneumonitis?
285. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Bagassosis is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by what?
286. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Autoimmune disease caused by IgG antibodies directed against glomerular and alveolar basement membranes (type II hypersensitivity rxn) = ?
287. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are the 3 components of treatment for Goodpasture's syndrome?
288. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
A patient with dry cough, dyspnea, rales, and hypoxia has a CxR with ground glass appearance with bilateral alveolar infiltrates that resemble a bat shape. What test do you do? What is the diagnosis?
289. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
does hyper or hypo capnia lead to cerebral vasodilation?
290. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Severe hypoxemia with no significant improvement on 100% oygen= ?
291. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the typical pulm Cap Wedge Pressure in ARDS?
292. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most useful parameter in differentiating ARDS from Cardiogenic Pulm Edema
293. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the goal PCWP in ARDS patients?
294. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the usual I:E ratio for vent settings?
295. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
If ventilaton is suspected to be required for >2 weeks, ET trach is preferred to prevent what?
296. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Pulmonary MAP is diagnostic of pulm htn at what mmHg?
297. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
primary Pulm HTN usually affects what population ?
298. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
2 components of medical management for patients with primary pulmonary hypertension
299. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Cor pulmonale is most commonly secondary to what ?
300. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common type of wart?
301. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What type of wart is most commonly on the chin/face, dorsum of hands and legs
302. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Condyloma acuminatum is most commonly associated with what 2 viruses?
303. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Vaccines against HPV cover what 2 strains?
304. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
A patient has suspected tinea capitis, you Woods lamp the area. It fluoresces... what microbiological species is the cause?
305. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Lindane cream, the second ljne tx for Scabies, is contraindicated in those under 2 and pregnant women for what reason?
306. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common skin cancer?
307. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common site for basal cell carcinoma?
308. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What kind of skin cancer: "crusting, ulcerated nodules or lesions"
309. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is Marjolin's ulcer?
310. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Stage Decub Ulcers...
311. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
First line for psoriasis:
312. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T or F
The most common risk factor for Seborrheic Keratosis is sunlight exposure
313. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What enzyme deficiency is responsible for hereditary angioedema?
314. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are the Types I - IV hypersensitivity reactions
315. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are the most common cause of secondary HTN in young women?
316. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which is a better combo:
ACEI + Thiazide
or
ACEI + CCB?
317. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
All people should be screened with fasting lipid profile how often and starting when?
318. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T or F
High calorie diets increase LDL, cholesterol, and TG levels
319. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the desired Total Cholesterol:HDL ratio?
320. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
All diabetics with an LDL > ____ should be started on a statin
321. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the first line treatment for an acute Cluster headache?
322. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is primary prophylaxis for cluster headaches (the type of headache with the greatest utility for prophylaxis)?
323. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What hormone depletion plays a major role in headaches?
324. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What defines "Status migranosus"?
325. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common route of transmission for the common cold?
326. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How big must an adrenal incidentaloma be before it should be resected?
327. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
A patient presents with HTN, unprovoked hypokalemia, headache, ECF volume expansion and *Absence of peripheral edema* ==?
328. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What will be the results of a Saline infusion test in a patient with Primary aldosteronism?
329. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How to manage bilateral hyperplasia as a cause of primary aldosteronism?
330. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency WORLDWIDE?
(What about in the industrialized world?)
331. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common cause of secondary adrenal insufficiency? (and adrenal insufficiency overall)
332. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Hyperpigmentation and hyperkalemia appears in (primary or secondary) adrenal insufficiency, but not (primary or secondary)
333. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the difference in treatment between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency?
334. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
90% of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is due to what?
335. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Why does CAH lead to virilization?
336. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
CAH diagnosis is made by high levels of ___ in the serum
337. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which has a stronger genetic component: DM1 or DM2?
338. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Dawn phenomenon = ?
339. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Somogyi effect = ?
340. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Daily asa is recommended in all diabetic patients over what age?
341. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Screen all adults over ___ y.o for diabetes every ___ years
342. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
MOA of sulfonylureas
343. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
AEs of sulfonylureas
344. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
MOA of Metformin
345. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
MOA of Acarbose
346. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
MOA of TZDs
347. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
AEs of TZDs
348. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which diabetic medication is contraindicated in patients with renal failure?
349. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which type of insulin has the SHORTEST onset of action?
350. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which type of insulin has the LONGEST onset of action?
351. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which type of insulin has the LONGEST duration?
352. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the onset of Lantus (glargine)
353. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the onset and duration of NPH?
354. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome is pathognomonic for DM... what is it?
355. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
When should you hold metformin if raiocontrast agents are required for DM patients?
356. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
CN complications of DM affect many ocular functions (adduction, ptosis, etc...) ... What does it SPARE?
357. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Tight glucose control can markedly reduce
(Micro or Macro)vascular complications of DM?
358. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common presentation for autonomic neuropathy in diabetics?
359. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What ketone is the only one that can be detected by nitroprusside agents to diagnose DKA?
360. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How much does serum sodium decrease with increased glucose?
361. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
When do you transition a DKA patient over from NS to D5%?
362. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T or F
Acidosis and Ketosis is rare in HHS?
363. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T or F
0.1 units/kg infusion of insulin should be started on HHS patients
364. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Why is the brain at highest risk when a patient is hypoglycemic?
365. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
If someone is factitiously taking insulin, their insulin level will be high... will C peptide be high or low?
366. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
When do s/s of hypoglycemia usually present? (level of BS)
367. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What can be done to diagnose an insulinoma?
368. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is whipple's triad?
369. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What laboratory value (outside of drug screen) will help differentiate sulfonylurea abuse vs Insulinoma?
370. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common location for metastasis for Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome?
371. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the diagnostic test of choice for Zollinger Ellison syndrome?
372. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What presents with necrotizing migratory erythema?
373. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the somatostatinoma classic triad?
374. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
VIPoma clinical features
375. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common site of distant spread of colorectal cancer?
376. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
what 3 components exists of gardners syndrome?
377. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
turcots syndrome
378. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Peutz-Jeghers
379. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Lynch Syndrome I
&
Lynch Syndrome II
380. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the definitive diagnostic test for acute mesenteric ischemia?
381. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What does "thumbprinting on barium enema due to thickened edematous mucosal folds indicate?
382. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
The medication "Papaverine" is used to treat all ARTERIAL causes of mesenteric ischemia. What does this medication do?
383. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
S/s + radiographic evidence of Large bowel obstruction is present, but there is no mechanical obstruction = ???
384. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What medication may be used as an adjuvant treatment to improve diarrhea in patients with cdiff?
385. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of Cirrhosis of the Liver?
386. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most life-threatening complication of portal HTN?
387. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is likely to be the cause of a patient with peritonitis with a serum ascites albumin gradient of >1.1 g/dL
388. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What can be given to hepatic encephalopathy patients to prevent absorption of ammonia?
What medication kills bowel flora (and therefore decreases ammonia production)?
389. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are the 3 most common agents that cause Sp. Bact. Peritonitis?
390. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What WBC and PMN count is consistent with SBP?
391. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How do you treat coagulopathy secondary to liver disease?
392. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Wilson's disease is Autosomal (Dom or Rec)
393. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the usual age of a patient with Wilson's disease?
394. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What renal complications develop secondary to Wilson's disease?
395. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How does "D-penicillamine" help treat Wilson's disease?
396. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Hepatocellular Adenoma is a benign liver tumor most often seen in what population?
397. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
3 main risk factors for hepatocellular adenoma
398. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common type of benign liver tumor?
399. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which type of Hepatocellular Carcinoma is NOT associated with HepB or C and is more often resectable with a longer survival time?
400. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What tumor marker is associated with liver cancer?
401. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which is elevated in Gilberts disease: Conjugated or Unconjugated bilirubin?
402. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Treatment of hydatid liver cysts is surgical resection plus what medication after surgery?
403. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What population is at highest risk for an amebic liver abscess?
404. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What syndrome is caused by occlusion of hepatic venous outflow --> hepatic congestion --> subsequent microvascular ischemia
405. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
when does clinical jaundice become evident?
406. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Dark urine is only seen with conjugated/unconjugated bilirubin
407. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Dubin-Johnson syndrome or Rotor's Syndrome both are inherited disorders causing what?
408. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Alk phos is elevated in gallbladder disease or in what 2 other situations?
409. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Black pigmented gallstones are associated with either hemolysis or ___.
410. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is "Boas sign"?
411. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What antibodies are found in the AUTOIMMUNE disease of Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?
412. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is "Klatskin's tumor"?
413. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Carcinoid syndrome is caused by what hormone/neurotransmitter?
414. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Where is the most common site for a carcinoid tumor?
415. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What size pancreatic cyst gets drained?
416. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Tumor marker for Pancreatic CA
417. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What condition is commonly associated with a Traction Diverticula of the esophagus?
418. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is Hamman's sign?
419. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which requires biopsy to rule out malignancy:
Duodenal or Gastric
ulcers?
420. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Name type 1 - 4 gastric ulcers
421. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What blood type is associated with duodenal ulcers?
422. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What blood type is associated with gastric ulcers?
423. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the biggest risk factor for duodenal ulcers?
424. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the biggest risk factor for gastric ulcers?
425. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Are gastric or duodenal ulcers from a DECREASE IN DEFENSIVE FACTORS?
426. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Is H.Pylori in a greater percentage of gastric or duodenal ulcers?
427. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common side effect of misoprostol for ulcer treatment?
428. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are the 4 morphologies for gastric cancer?
429. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
mets of gastric carcinoma
1- krukenburg tumor
2- irish node
430. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
which is increased with crohns:
gall stones or kidney stones?
431. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
how does 5-ASA work
432. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Where should a properly placed ET tube be on CXR?
433. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
1st degree heart block is defined by PR interval of what?
434. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which leads can you determine left atrial enlargement in?
435. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
where are isolted q waves considered normal?
436. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Small, concave ST segment elevations
437. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is a "Hickman" catheter?
438. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which has a higher risk of aspiration: nutritional support with
A - continuous feeding
or
B - intermittent feeding
439. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which antibiotic inhibits the transpeptidation step of cell wall building?
440. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
PCNs act synergistically with what abx?
441. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T or F - PCN covers E.coli, but Amoxacillin does not
442. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which gen of Cephalosporins have greater gram - but lesser gram + activity vs 1st gen?
443. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What abx is bacteriocidal by inhibiting the 30s ribosomal subunit?
444. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which abx is bacteriocidal by inhibiting the 50s ribosomal subunit?
445. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which abx may cause a bleeding diathesis that my be corrected by vit K administration?
446. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
which two medications are combined for use in endocarditis?
447. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
2 complications of aminoglycosides
448. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which ABX blocks bacterial DNA synthesis?
449. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
3rd and 4th gen cephalosporins are not useful for infections with what 2 kinds of bacteria?
450. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What two abx work synergistically to treat enterococcus?
451. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Imipenem is always combined with ___ to prevent renal toxicity
452. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
what abx is used empirically when gram neg sepsis is suspected?
453. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
WHICH CARBAPENEM LOWERS SEIZURE THRESHOLD?
454. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
why is bacitracin only used topically?
455. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
tx of choice for mycoplasm pneumonia "walking pna"
456. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which abx binds to 50 s bacterial ribosomal subunit, but also binds to human ribosomes, which may be toxic!
457. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What abx causes Aplastic Anemia and Gray baby syndrome?
458. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which abx inhibits monoamine oxidase and therefore can cause seritonin syndrome?
459. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which FQ is the only one with anaerobic coverage?
460. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
tx of choice for LATENT TB
461. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Most important adverse reaction of INH
462. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is prophylaxis and treatment for PCP?
463. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which abx inhibits acetyl CoA?
464. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What are 3 causes of paradoxical splitting of S2
465. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
If a patient has relapse of pyelo for the same organism despite treatment, what do you do?
466. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
80% of Reiters syndrome is associated with what kind of infection?
467. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common bacterial STD?
468. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Gram stain of urethral discharge showing organisms within leukocytes is highly specific for ____
469. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
A CD4 count of >____ means the immune system is essentially normal
470. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Most opportunistic infections in AIDS patients occur at a CD4 below ____
471. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the leading cause of death in patients with AIDs?
472. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Tx vs Prophylaxis for PCP in AIDs Patients...
473. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
CT of aids patient shows multiple (>3) contrast-enhanced mass lesions in the basal ganglia and subcortical white matter
474. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What CNS infection should be identified using india ink?
475. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How do you treat aids, cryptococcal meningitis?
476. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the quickest test to diagnose HSV infection?
477. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
How long does it take for a primary syphilis chancre to heal, even without therapy?
478. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most characteristic finding of secondary syphilis?
479. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Which stages of syphilis are patients contagious?
480. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is tabes dorsalis?
481. Fill in the Blank
30 seconds
1 pt
RPR or VDRL may be falsely positive in patients with______
482. Fill in the Blank
30 seconds
1 pt
Diagnosis of syphilis: VDRL and RPR, if +, confirm with _____
483. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What abx can be used for chancroid (H. ducrei)
484. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Tx for lymphogranuloma venerum
485. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the most common joint infected with septic arthritis?
486. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T or F
Most septic arthritis should be repeatedly drained, but gonococcal arthritis should not be
487. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
T or F
Kernig and Brudzinski's sign is negative in Lyme meningitis
488. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is arodermatitis chronica atrophicans?
489. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What peaks and drops off and what lasts forever in Lyme titers:
IgG vs IgM
490. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Tx for lyme disease (abx and duration):
Tx for children < 12 or pregnant women?
Tx for children or pregnant women with pcn allergies?
Tx for complications (cardiac, palsy, arthritis):
Tx for CNS complications:
491. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
A hiker heads out in april. 1 week later develops a fever, 5 days later develops a rash on wrists that spreads to shoulders it is papular and turns petechial. He has elevated liver enzymes and thrombocytopenia. How do you treat him?
492. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Blood smear for malaria must have what kind of stain?
493. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Chloroquine should be given to malaria unless resistance is suspected. then give what?
If traveler is going to chloroquine resistant area, what do you give for prophylaxis?
494. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Leptospirosis is caused by drinking contaminated water - it can cause anicteric disease with rash, lymphadenopathy, and increased LFTs ...or... Icteric disease with renal +/or liver fail, vasculitis, and vascular collapse - - -how do you treat it?
495. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
Tx for Tularemia caused by a bite
496. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What is the causative organism of Q fever?
Tx for acute infection?
Tx for chronic infection (endocarditis)?
497. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What organism is associated with pigeon droppings?
498. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What does india ink stain show for cryptococcus infection?
499. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
What organism is associated with bat/bird droppings endemic in ohio and mississippi river valleys
500. Open Ended
30 seconds
1 pt
A patient is **GARDENING** and has a thorn attack skin --> hard subq nodules that ulcerate and drain... how do you treat it?